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All of the Hebrew references that follow can be confirmed using the The Englishman's Hebrew Concordance of the Old Testament . That's where I got them from.

God (Elohim) is in red, Lord (Adonai) is in green, and JHVH (LORD) is in blue. One problem is that in the OT there are three main terms for "God" which are Elohim (translated as God), Adonai (translated as Lordcapital L and small case ord) and JHVH (translated as LORDALL CAPITALS). People say "God" in reference to all three, but now we have a big problem. These three cannot be used interchangeably for as example we read in Exodus 6:2-3:

And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the Lord: and I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God (Elohim) Almighty; but by my name Jehovah (JHVH) was I not known to them. 

Here God (Elohim) is the name by which the Lord (Adonai) appeared unto them. God here can only be Adonai (Lord), not God or LORD, according to this text, and therefor Elohim and JHVH cannot be God. Now to Exodus 20:7:

Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord thy God in vain: for the Lord will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.

The word God here has been changed from a diety to a category of dieties, In the Genesis creation story Elohim (God) created the heavens and the earth, and so was the God that did it. But now God (Elohim) is no longer a diety but a category for gods, in the same way the we use the term "Gods" today to categorize the various gods of the various religions. This can be seen by the wording: Lord thy God. Here Elohim is the category name into which Adonai is placed. Notice that it states name (singular) of the Lord, not names (plural). If there is only one name for God, then there is only one God here in this text, which is Adonai, and so the others (Elohim and JHVH) cannot be God. This then destroys the creation story where we are told that Elohim (God) created the world. But we have just seen that Elohim is not God.

It is the name Adonai that we are not to take in vain, but have you ever hrad anyone swearing and saying "Adonai dam you!" ? What is the point prohibiting usuing the name of Adonai in vain if no one is using his name in vain? The word "God" as used in this immediate contect is a category, not God, and so then is not wrong to swear and say: "God dammit!". Nor is Jesus or Christ mentioned here. So then what is swearing? According to this text it is confined to using the name Adonai in vain, which no one is doing.

Someone may argue that they three are really the same God so it dosn't make any difference which one is used and that they are interchangeable. But if they are all the same, then why are they different names? In Who Wrote the Bible, Friedman reveals how that the Northern Kingdom used a different name for God (or a different God altogether?) than did the Southern Kingdom. You can see this for yourself by comparing the parallels accounts in Kings and Chronicles. This explains why the stories are "duplicated". Actually they were not duplicated, but one account was written by the Northern and the other by the Southern Kingdom, and you will also find that different terms for God are used in each. Each Kingdom also had different priesthoods. The name was related to the priesthood that was used, as each of the two kingdoms also had separate priesthoods.

Elohim is found in Genesis 1:1 (In the beginning God created the heavens and the Earth) in relation to the creation story, yet Elohom is plural because when the Hebrew "im" is added to the end of a word it denotes plurality, hence "God" (Elohim) is more than one God, and is both genders so that Elohim (God) is a plurality of male and female gods. The plurality aspect is found in Genesis 1:26-27:

And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.

Since God is both male and female, the creation of humans is also male and female (in God's image and likeness as both genders). Elohim is translated exclusively as a female in two places:

1 Kings 11:5
For Solomon went after Ashtoreth
the goddess of the Zidonians, and after Milcom the abomination of the Ammonites.

1 Kings 11:33

because that they have forsaken me, and have worshipped Ashtoreth the goddess of the Zidonians . . .

Elohim is also translated as false gods in the confrontation between Jacob and Laban in Genesis 31:30:

And now, though thou wouldest needs be gone, because thou sore longedst after thy father’s house, yet wherefore hast thou stolen my gods? 

In summary, Elohim can be male or female or both, plural or singular, true or false. Elohim is also translated as:

Psalm 8:5: For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour
Exodus 21:6: Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear though with an aul; and he shall serve him forever.
Exodus22:8: If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought unto the judges, to see whether he have put his hand unto his neighbour’s goods.
9 (twice in v.9) For all manner of trespass, whether it be for ox, for ass, for sheep, for raiment, or for any manner of lost thing, which another challengeth to be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the judges; and whom the judges shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his neighbour.
1 Sam 2:25 If one goes against another, the judge shall judge him: but if a man sin against the LORD, who shall entreat for him? ...”
(In this verse there are two occurrences of judge. It is the first occurrence that is from 430 Elohim.)
Exodus 9:28 Entreat the LORD (for it is enough) that there be no more mighty thunderings and hail; and I will let you go, and ye shall stay no longer.
In 2 Kings 1:2,3,6, and 16 Elohim is translated as “the god of”. In all of these cases it is referring to a false god. In verses 3, 6, and 16 we find Elohim referring to the true and false god in the same verse! 
v.1 And he said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Forsasmuch as thou hast sent messengers to inquire of Baal-zebub the God of Ekron, is it not because there is no God in Israel to inquire of his word? Therefore thou shalt not come down off that bed on which thou art gone up, but shalt surely die.
v.2 And Ahaziah fell down through a lattice in his upper chamber that was in Samaria, and was sick: and he sent messengers, and said unto them, Go, inquire of Baal-zebub the God of Ekron whether I shall recover of this disease.
v.3 But the angel of the LORD said to Elijah the Tishbite, Arise, go up to meet the messengers of the king of Samaria, and say unto them, Is it not because there is not a God in Israel, that ye go to inquire of Baal-zebub the God of Ekron?
v.6 And they said unto him, There came a man up to meet us, and said unto us, Go, turn again unto the king that sent you, and say unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Is it not because there is not a God in Israel, that ye go to inquire of Baal-zebub the God of Ekron? Therefore thou shalt not come down from that bed on which thou art gone up, , but shalt surely die.
v.16 And he said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Forasmuch as thou hast sent messengers to inquire Baal-zebub the God of Ekron, is it not because there is no God in Israel to inquire of his word? Therefore thou shalt not come down off that bed on which thou art gone up, but shalt surely die.

Isaiah 45:5: I am the LORD (JHVH), and there is no one else, there is no God (Elohim) beside me. (We previously saw that Adonai was "God", not Elohim or JHVH)

There is no God (Elohim) beside JHVH? This makes no sense. The implication, as confusing as it is, implies that JHVH is that God who there is none beside, but JHVH is distinct from Elohim, as clearly seen in Exodus 6:2-3:
And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the Lord: and I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God (Elohim) Almighty; but by my name Jehovah (JHVH) was I not known to them.

According to this, JHVH is Elohim. What a mess! So now Elohim and JHVH are the same thing, but Elohim is known by the name Elohim but not by the name JHVH. If JHVH is Elohim, then it is also plural and both genders, and so must be Adonai if they are all the same God. (or is that gods?) Sorry sirs. (or shd that be madams? Or both?) 

Yet God spoke to Moses as both Elohim and as JHVH, in the same verse! He appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as JHVH (he told then "I am the LORD" [JHVH]) as Elohim (by the name of God [Elohim]). So there is no Elohim (God) beside God (JHVH). No folks I am not making this up, here JHVH is said to be God (Elohim). Previously we were told that Adonai was the God

Psalm 82:1: God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. 

Then God was judging among the gods, so he cd not have been god (alone) because otherwise he wd have been judging himself, because we have previously read that there are no other gods, so then how can he be judging amoung the gods if there aren't any other ones? Is your head spinning yet? Hold on, there is more to come.

Now consider the seriousness of this statement. It is saying that God does not exist! "There is no God beside me (beside or other than JHVH, and this includes Elohim.)

The second ocurance of God in this verse is the word El (in Hebrew) which is the same word used for Bethel where Jacob built an alter after receiving the dream of the ladder to heaven. The English phrase as God is El, (Strong's 410). The Hebrew spelling of El as aleph - lamed. Interestingly aleph is the equivalent of our letter A, not E, as it is the first letter in the aleph-beth, and is the equivalent to the Greek Alpha, which refers to Jesus as the Alpha and Omega. El is the same root word of Elohim which is translated as God but in the plural form. When Isaac blessed Jacob in Gen 28, it is stated in v. 3: "And God Almighty bless thee, and make thee fruitful, and multiply thee, that thou mayest be a multitude of people."  The story of Jacob's ladder: Genesis 28:12-14: 

And Jacob went out from Beer-sheba, and went toward Haran. And he lighted upon a certain place, and tarried there all night, because the sun was set; and he took of the stones of that place, and put them for his pillows, and lay down in that place to sleep. And he dreamed, and behold a ladder set up on the earth, and the top of it reached to heaven: and behold the angels of God ascending and descending on it. And, behold, the Lord stood above it, and said, I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac: the land whereon thou liest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed.

The Lord God? This is like saying: the Adonai Elohim . . . make your mind up which one it is. Or is this a new hybrid? Later in ch.28 we read: "I am the God of Beth-el, where thou anointedst the pillar, and where thou vowedst a vow unto me: now arise, get thee out from this land, and return unto the land of thy kindred." Beth-El is Strong's 1008 and is a compound word containing El (God) and beth (house). Yet God (Elohim) is the god of Beth-El. How can God be the God of God? The only difference between the two occurences here of God is that Elohim is plural and El is singular, but they both have the same root El, and both mean God. Now to Judges 2:11-13:

And the children of Israel did evil in the sight of the Lord, and served Baalim: and they forsook the Lord God (Elohim) of their fathers, which brought them out of the land of Egypt, and followed other gods (Elohim), of the gods (Elohim) of the people that were round about them, and bowed themselves unto them, and provoked the Lord to anger. And they forsook the Lord, and served Baal and Ashtaroth.

Now this in amazing: both the true and false gods use the same Hebrew name Elohim! This is seen in the phrase: "they forsook the Lord God (Elohim) of their fathers, which brought them out of the land of Egypt, and followed other gods [plural] (Elohim), of the gods [plural] (Elohim) of the people that were round about them." They forsook Elohim to go and worship Elohim. (try to figure that one out!) Anyone can check this out in two different sources: the listings of 430 Elohim in The Englishman's Hebrew Concordance of the Old Testament, and also in the Interlinear Bible, translated by J.P. Green. (which contains the KJV along side Green's own translation). Both of these resources, written more than 100 years apart, agree in their findings. We have a similar situation in Exodus 15:2,11 

The Lord is my strength and song, and he is become my salvation: he is my God (El) . . .    (Elohim is God)

Who is like unto thee, O Lord, among the gods ? (Who is Adonai among the Elohim?)

In both cases here we have El which again is Strongs 410. So the true God and false gods are from the same Hebrew word El (410). This is only part of the mixed up history of the Jewish religion. Yet Christianity is claims these same Gods as true.

We find in the creation story where light has created light. Compare these following two verses, then ask yourself the question: How can God (light) create himself (light)?

1 John 1:5 . . . God is light, and in him is no darkness at all

Genesis 1:3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

All this does not even include their worship of Ashtoreth, or Asherah, a goddess. In this regard you may wish to watch the BBC documentary hosted by Francesca Stavrakopoulou entitled "Did God Have a Wife."